EPPP QBank

May 19, 2026

A psychologist is reviewing the results of a treatment outcome study in which the effect size (Cohen’s d) is reported as 0.80. Which of the following best describes this finding?

A. The treatment explains 8% of the variance
B. The average treated participant scored 0.8 standard deviations above the average untreated participant
C. The probability of replication is 80%
D. The treatment reduced error variance by 80%
E. The treatment effect is statistically significant at p < .05

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Answer: B

Explanation:
Cohen’s d measures the standardized difference between two group means. A value of 0.80 indicates that the treatment group mean is 0.8 standard deviations higher than the comparison group mean, which is generally considered a large effect size.

(A) This confuses Cohen’s d with proportion of variance explained. Cohen’s d does not directly indicate the percentage of variance accounted for by treatment.
(C) Effect size does not indicate the probability that a study will replicate successfully.
(D) Cohen’s d is not a measure of error variance reduction.
(E) Statistical significance depends partly on sample size, not just effect size.

A child consistently fails conservation tasks but can correctly organize objects by size and understands reversibility in simple arithmetic. According to Piaget, this child is most likely in which developmental stage?

A. Sensorimotor
B. Formal operational
C. Preoperational
D. Concrete operational
E. Transitional between preoperational and concrete operational

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Answer: E

Explanation:
This child demonstrates emerging concrete operational abilities such as reversibility and seriation while still failing conservation tasks, suggesting a transitional stage between preoperational and concrete operational functioning.

(A) Sensorimotor children are much younger and would not demonstrate reversibility skills.
(B) Formal operational reasoning involves abstract hypothetical thinking seen in adolescence.
(C) A fully preoperational child would usually struggle with reversibility and classification.
(D) Fully concrete operational children generally pass conservation tasks consistently.

During therapy, a client suddenly becomes silent whenever discussing feelings toward the therapist. The therapist experiences a strong urge to reassure the client and quickly change the topic. This therapist reaction is best understood as:

A. Projective identification
B. Resistance
C. Parallel process
D. Countertransference
E. Displacement

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Answer: A

Explanation:
Projective identification occurs when a client unconsciously induces feelings or reactions in another person. The therapist’s urge to rescue and redirect the discussion reflects emotions unconsciously communicated by the client.

(B) Resistance refers to the client’s avoidance of emotionally threatening material.
(C) Parallel process generally refers to dynamics recreated in supervision relationships.
(D) Countertransference is broader and may occur independently of client-induced reactions.
(E) Displacement involves redirecting emotions toward a different target.

A researcher finds a statistically significant correlation between ice cream sales and drowning deaths. The most likely explanation is:

A. Experimenter bias
B. Type II error
C. Restriction of range
D. A confounding variable
E. Regression toward the mean

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Answer: D

Explanation:
Hot weather likely increases both ice cream sales and swimming activity, which in turn increases drowning risk. This creates a spurious correlation caused by a confounding variable.

(A) Experimenter bias involves researcher expectations influencing outcomes.
(B) A Type II error occurs when a real effect is missed.
(C) Restriction of range typically weakens correlations.
(E) Regression toward the mean refers to extreme scores becoming less extreme over time.

Which schedule of reinforcement typically produces behavior that is the most resistant to extinction?

A. Fixed interval
B. Continuous reinforcement
C. Fixed ratio
D. Variable interval
E. Variable ratio

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Answer: E

Explanation:
Variable ratio schedules reinforce behavior after unpredictable numbers of responses, creating highly persistent behavior. Gambling is a classic example.

(A) Fixed interval schedules create scalloped response patterns.
(B) Continuous reinforcement extinguishes rapidly once reinforcement stops.
(C) Fixed ratio schedules produce pauses after reinforcement.
(D) Variable interval schedules produce steady behavior but less persistence than variable ratio schedules.

A neuropsychologist notes that a patient can speak fluently but produces nonsensical language and has poor comprehension. Damage is most likely located in:

A. Broca’s area
B. Angular gyrus
C. Wernicke’s area
D. Occipital cortex
E. Arcuate fasciculus

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Answer: C

Explanation:
Wernicke’s aphasia is characterized by fluent but meaningless speech and impaired comprehension, typically associated with posterior temporal lobe damage.

(A) Broca’s aphasia produces nonfluent speech with relatively preserved comprehension.
(B) Angular gyrus damage is more associated with reading and writing deficits.
(D) Occipital cortex damage primarily affects vision.
(E) Arcuate fasciculus damage produces conduction aphasia with impaired repetition.

In classical conditioning, spontaneous recovery refers to:

A. The weakening of a conditioned response after repeated exposure
B. The return of an extinguished response after a rest period
C. The transfer of learning to similar stimuli
D. The pairing of two conditioned stimuli
E. A biologically prepared response pattern

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Answer: B

Explanation:
Spontaneous recovery occurs when an extinguished conditioned response reappears after time has passed without further conditioning trials.

(A) This describes extinction.
(C) This describes stimulus generalization.
(D) This refers to higher-order conditioning.
(E) Preparedness refers to biologically predisposed learning tendencies.

Which of the following is most characteristic of borderline personality disorder?

A. Lack of remorse and chronic deceitfulness
B. Grandiosity and need for admiration
C. Emotional instability and fear of abandonment
D. Perfectionism and rigidity
E. Social detachment and restricted affect

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Answer: C

Explanation:
Borderline personality disorder is characterized by unstable relationships, emotional dysregulation, impulsivity, and intense fears of abandonment.

(A) These are characteristic of antisocial personality disorder.
(B) These are features of narcissistic personality disorder.
(D) These are associated with obsessive-compulsive personality disorder.
(E) These are associated with schizoid personality disorder.

A test has high reliability but poor validity. This means the test:

A. Measures what it intends to measure accurately
B. Produces inconsistent results
C. Is strongly correlated with other valid measures
D. Produces consistent results but may not measure the intended construct
E. Has minimal measurement error

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Answer: D

Explanation:
Reliability refers to consistency, while validity refers to accuracy. A test can consistently measure the wrong construct.

(A) This describes validity, not merely reliability.
(B) High reliability means results are consistent, not inconsistent.
(C) Strong correlation with valid measures may support validity but is not guaranteed.
(E) Reliability reduces measurement error but does not ensure accurate measurement.

Which neurotransmitter pathway is most associated with positive symptoms of schizophrenia?

A. Nigrostriatal dopamine pathway
B. Mesolimbic dopamine pathway
C. Mesocortical dopamine pathway
D. Serotonergic raphe pathway
E. Cholinergic basal forebrain pathway

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Answer: B

Explanation:
Excess dopamine activity in the mesolimbic pathway is strongly associated with hallucinations and delusions.

(A) Nigrostriatal dysfunction is more associated with movement disorders and extrapyramidal symptoms.
(C) Mesocortical deficits are linked more closely to negative symptoms and cognitive impairment.
(D) Serotonin pathways influence mood and perception but are not the primary explanation for positive symptoms.
(E) Cholinergic systems are more associated with memory and cognition.

A therapist notices that clients improve regardless of the specific therapeutic orientation used. This observation most strongly supports:

A. Behavioral specificity
B. The medical disease model
C. Common factors theory
D. Operant conditioning theory
E. State-dependent learning

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Answer: C

Explanation:
Common factors theory proposes that elements shared across therapies, such as empathy, therapeutic alliance, and expectancy, contribute substantially to treatment success.

(A) Behavioral specificity emphasizes unique interventions rather than shared therapeutic elements.
(B) The medical model focuses on diagnosis and symptom reduction rather than broad relational healing factors.
(D) Operant conditioning explains learning through reinforcement but does not account for improvement across diverse therapies.
(E) State-dependent learning refers to memory retrieval associated with internal states.

A psychologist conducting custody evaluations should primarily avoid:

A. Collecting collateral information
B. Interviewing children separately
C. Using multiple assessment methods
D. Entering dual relationships with either parent
E. Reviewing school records

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Answer: D

Explanation:
Forensic evaluators must remain neutral and objective. Dual relationships with either parent may impair impartiality and create ethical conflicts.

(A) Collateral information is often essential in custody evaluations.
(B) Separate interviews with children are common practice when developmentally appropriate.
(C) Multiple assessment methods strengthen evaluation validity.
(E) Reviewing school records is standard and often necessary.

In signal detection theory, increasing sensitivity means the observer is better able to:

A. Reduce prevalence rates
B. Distinguish signal from noise
C. Eliminate false alarms entirely
D. Increase response bias
E. Improve internal consistency reliability

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Answer: B

Explanation:
Sensitivity refers to the ability to correctly discriminate between true signals and background noise.

(A) Prevalence rates refer to how common a condition is, not perceptual sensitivity.
(C) Even highly sensitive systems may still produce some false alarms.
(D) Response bias refers to a person’s tendency to respond conservatively or liberally.
(E) Internal consistency reliability concerns test item consistency, not perceptual detection.

Which defense mechanism is most mature?

A. Projection
B. Splitting
C. Sublimation
D. Denial
E. Acting out

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Answer: C

Explanation:
Sublimation redirects unacceptable impulses into socially acceptable or productive activities and is considered a mature defense mechanism.

(A) Projection involves attributing one’s own unacceptable feelings to others.
(B) Splitting involves viewing people as all good or all bad and is commonly seen in borderline pathology.
(D) Denial involves refusing to acknowledge reality.
(E) Acting out involves expressing emotions impulsively through behavior rather than reflection.

A client with panic disorder begins avoiding grocery stores because of fear of having a panic attack there. This avoidance behavior is most directly maintained by:

A. Positive reinforcement
B. Classical conditioning
C. Negative reinforcement
D. Observational learning
E. Latent inhibition

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Answer: C

Explanation:
Avoidance reduces anxiety temporarily, which negatively reinforces the behavior and increases the likelihood of continued avoidance.

(A) Positive reinforcement involves adding a rewarding stimulus.
(B) Classical conditioning may explain how the fear initially developed but not how avoidance is maintained.
(D) Observational learning involves learning through watching others.
(E) Latent inhibition refers to difficulty conditioning familiar stimuli.

Which of the following most threatens external validity?

A. Attrition
B. Experimenter expectancy
C. Demand characteristics
D. Artificial laboratory conditions
E. Instrument decay

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Answer: D

Explanation:
External validity concerns whether findings generalize to real-world situations. Artificial laboratory settings may limit generalizability.

(A) Attrition mainly threatens internal validity if dropout patterns differ between groups.
(B) Experimenter expectancy can bias results and threaten internal validity.
(C) Demand characteristics may alter participant behavior within the study.
(E) Instrument decay refers to deterioration in measurement quality over time.

A patient with severe anterograde amnesia can still learn mirror-tracing tasks over time despite not remembering previous practice sessions. This finding best demonstrates:

A. Explicit memory functioning
B. Semantic encoding
C. Procedural memory preservation
D. State-dependent memory
E. Flashbulb memory

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Answer: C

Explanation:
Procedural memory for motor skills can remain intact even when declarative memory is severely impaired.

(A) Explicit memory is impaired in anterograde amnesia.
(B) Semantic encoding refers to meaning-based processing, not preserved motor learning.
(D) State-dependent memory involves retrieval associated with matching physiological states.
(E) Flashbulb memory involves vivid memory for emotionally significant events.

A client reports hearing voices commenting on his actions. This symptom is classified as:

A. Thought insertion
B. Delusion of reference
C. Command hallucination
D. Auditory hallucination
E. Derealization

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Answer: D

Explanation:
Hearing voices without external stimuli is an auditory hallucination. Commentary hallucinations are classic psychotic symptoms.

(A) Thought insertion involves believing thoughts are implanted by an outside force.
(B) Delusions of reference involve interpreting unrelated events as personally directed.
(C) Command hallucinations specifically instruct the individual to perform actions.
(E) Derealization involves feelings that the environment is unreal.

Which parenting style is generally associated with the best developmental outcomes in Western cultures?

A. Neglectful
B. Permissive
C. Authoritarian
D. Inconsistent
E. Authoritative

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Answer: E

Explanation:
Authoritative parenting combines warmth, responsiveness, and appropriate structure, leading to healthier emotional and social outcomes.

(A) Neglectful parenting is associated with poor emotional and behavioral outcomes.
(B) Permissive parenting provides warmth but insufficient limits.
(C) Authoritarian parenting emphasizes strict control with limited warmth.
(D) Inconsistent parenting creates unpredictability and insecurity.

A psychologist uses factor analysis when developing a personality test primarily to:

A. Measure temporal stability
B. Eliminate response bias
C. Determine whether test items cluster into underlying constructs
D. Increase interrater reliability
E. Establish criterion validity

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Answer: C

Explanation:
Factor analysis identifies clusters of related items that likely measure underlying psychological traits or constructs.

(A) Temporal stability refers to test-retest reliability.
(B) Factor analysis does not directly eliminate response bias.
(D) Interrater reliability concerns agreement between observers.
(E) Criterion validity involves predicting outcomes or correlating with external measures.

May 17, 2026

A psychologist notices that a client’s anxiety decreases after repeated exposure to feared situations without avoidance behaviors. Which behavioral principle best explains this improvement?

A. Spontaneous recovery
B. Extinction
C. Positive punishment
D. Stimulus discrimination
E. Secondary reinforcement

Answer: B. Extinction

Explanation:

Extinction occurs when a conditioned response weakens because the feared stimulus is repeatedly presented without the expected negative outcome. Exposure therapy often relies on extinction principles.

(A) Spontaneous recovery refers to the return of an extinguished response after a delay.
(C) Positive punishment involves adding an unpleasant consequence.
(D) Stimulus discrimination involves distinguishing between stimuli.
(E) Secondary reinforcement involves learned reinforcers such as money.

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A test consistently produces similar scores across repeated administrations. This reflects:

A. Validity
B. Reliability
C. Standardization
D. Norming
E. Objectivity

Answer: B. Reliability

Explanation:

Reliability refers to consistency and stability of measurement across time or raters.

(A) Validity refers to whether the test measures what it claims to measure.
(C) Standardization involves uniform administration procedures.
(D) Norming involves comparing scores to a reference group.
(E) Objectivity refers to minimizing scorer bias.

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Which brain structure is most directly associated with consolidation of new long-term memories?

A. Amygdala
B. Cerebellum
C. Hippocampus
D. Hypothalamus
E. Thalamus

Answer: C. Hippocampus

Explanation:

The hippocampus plays a central role in forming and consolidating new declarative memories.

(A) The amygdala is heavily involved in emotional processing.
(B) The cerebellum coordinates movement and procedural learning.
(D) The hypothalamus regulates autonomic and endocrine functions.
(E) The thalamus acts mainly as a sensory relay center.

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A therapist notices that they are reacting emotionally to a client in ways influenced by the therapist’s own unresolved conflicts. This is called:

A. Resistance
B. Projection
C. Countertransference
D. Transference
E. Displacement

Answer: C. Countertransference

Explanation:

Countertransference occurs when therapists project their own emotional issues onto clients.

(A) Resistance refers to client avoidance of difficult material.
(B) Projection involves attributing one’s own traits to others.
(D) Transference occurs when clients project feelings onto therapists.
(E) Displacement redirects emotions toward safer targets.

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In classical conditioning, the conditioned stimulus originally functions as a:

A. Punisher
B. Neutral stimulus
C. Primary reinforcer
D. Reflexive behavior
E. Discriminative stimulus

Answer: B. Neutral stimulus

Explanation:

Before conditioning occurs, the conditioned stimulus is initially neutral and does not naturally elicit the response.

(A) Punishers decrease behavior.
(C) Primary reinforcers naturally satisfy biological needs.
(D) Reflexive behaviors are automatic responses.
(E) Discriminative stimuli signal reinforcement availability.

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A researcher finds that as stress increases, job performance improves up to a point, after which performance declines. This relationship is best described by:

A. Weber’s law
B. Yerkes-Dodson law
C. Thorndike’s law of effect
D. Signal detection theory
E. Opponent-process theory

Answer: B. Yerkes-Dodson law

Explanation:

The Yerkes-Dodson law proposes an inverted-U relationship between arousal and performance.

(A) Weber’s law concerns sensory perception thresholds.
(C) Thorndike’s law of effect concerns reinforcement.
(D) Signal detection theory concerns perception under uncertainty.
(E) Opponent-process theory concerns emotional adaptation.

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Which schedule of reinforcement typically produces the highest rate of responding and greatest resistance to extinction?

A. Fixed interval
B. Variable interval
C. Fixed ratio
D. Variable ratio
E. Continuous reinforcement

Answer: D. Variable ratio

Explanation:

Variable ratio schedules reinforce after unpredictable numbers of responses and produce persistent, high-rate responding, as seen in gambling behavior.

(A) Fixed interval produces scalloped responding.
(B) Variable interval produces moderate steady responding.
(C) Fixed ratio produces high response rates but more pauses.
(E) Continuous reinforcement extinguishes quickly.

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Damage to Broca’s area is most likely to impair:

A. Language comprehension
B. Facial recognition
C. Speech production
D. Visual processing
E. Auditory perception

Answer: C. Speech production

Explanation:

Broca’s area is involved in expressive language and speech production.

(A) Wernicke’s area primarily handles comprehension.
(B) Facial recognition is associated with the fusiform gyrus.
(D) Visual processing involves occipital regions.
(E) Auditory perception involves temporal lobe structures.

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A child learns aggressive behavior primarily by observing aggressive adults. This finding is most closely associated with:

A. Piaget
B. Skinner
C. Bandura
D. Freud
E. Rogers

Answer: C. Bandura

Explanation:

Bandura’s social learning theory emphasizes observational learning and modeling.

(A) Piaget focused on cognitive development.
(B) Skinner emphasized operant conditioning.
(D) Freud emphasized unconscious conflict.
(E) Rogers emphasized humanistic therapy.

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Which personality test is considered projective?

A. MMPI-2
B. WAIS-IV
C. Beck Depression Inventory
D. Rorschach Inkblot Test
E. Stanford-Binet

Answer: D. Rorschach Inkblot Test

Explanation:

Projective tests use ambiguous stimuli to uncover unconscious processes.

(A) MMPI-2 is an objective personality inventory.
(B) WAIS-IV measures intelligence.
(C) Beck inventory measures depression symptoms.
(E) Stanford-Binet measures intelligence.

April 22, 2026

1. A researcher finds that the relationship between stress and performance follows an inverted U-shape. This is best explained by which principle?

A. Law of effect
B. Yerkes-Dodson law
C. Hebbian learning
D. Signal detection theory

Answer: B

Explanation:
The Yerkes-Dodson law describes an optimal level of arousal for peak performance, with both low and high extremes impairing functioning.

(A) Law of effect relates to reinforcement, not arousal-performance relationships.
(C) Hebbian learning refers to synaptic strengthening through repeated activation.
(D) Signal detection theory concerns distinguishing signal from noise.

2. In factor analysis, when two tests load highly on the same factor, this suggests:

A. Low reliability
B. Shared underlying construct
C. Poor standardization
D. Criterion contamination

Answer: B

Explanation:
High factor loadings indicate that both tests measure a similar latent variable or construct.

(A) Reliability refers to consistency, not factor structure.
(C) Standardization concerns administration procedures.
(D) Criterion contamination involves overlap between predictor and outcome.

3. A therapist using motivational interviewing would most likely emphasize:

A. Confronting resistance directly
B. Exploring ambivalence and eliciting change talk
C. Providing structured behavioral homework
D. Interpreting unconscious conflicts

Answer: B

Explanation:
Motivational interviewing focuses on resolving ambivalence and encouraging intrinsic motivation through client-centered dialogue.

(A) Direct confrontation increases resistance.
(C) Structured homework is more CBT-oriented.
(D) Interpretation is psychodynamic, not MI.

4. Which schedule of reinforcement produces the highest resistance to extinction?

A. Fixed interval
B. Fixed ratio
C. Variable interval
D. Variable ratio

Answer: D

Explanation:
Variable ratio schedules, like gambling, reinforce unpredictably and produce persistent responding.

(A) Fixed interval leads to scalloping response patterns.
(B) Fixed ratio produces high rates but lower resistance than VR.
(C) Variable interval produces steady responding but less persistence than VR.

Effect size indicates:

A. Statistical significance
B. Magnitude of relationship
C. Sample size
D. Error rate

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Answer: B

Explanation:
Effect size reflects the strength or magnitude of a relationship or difference.

(A) Statistical significance is determined by p-values.
(C) Sample size influences significance, not effect size.
(D) Error rate refers to Type I or Type II errors.

April 10, 2026

1. Which structure is primarily responsible for regulating the body’s hormonal responses?
A. Hippocampus
B. Hypothalamus
C. Amygdala
D. Medulla

Answer: B. Hypothalamus
Explanation: The hypothalamus links the nervous system to the endocrine system.
(A) Hippocampus is involved in memory.
(C) Amygdala processes emotion.
(D) Medulla controls autonomic functions like breathing.
Section: Biological Bases of Behavior

2. Which neurotransmitter is primarily inhibitory in the central nervous system?
A. Dopamine
B. GABA
C. Norepinephrine
D. Glutamate

Answer: B. GABA
Explanation: GABA reduces neuronal firing.
(A) Dopamine is associated with reward.
(C) Norepinephrine is linked to arousal.
(D) Glutamate is excitatory.
Section: Biological Bases of Behavior

3. A subject learns to press a lever to receive food. This is an example of:
A. Classical conditioning
B. Operant conditioning
C. Observational learning
D. Insight learning

Answer: B. Operant conditioning
Explanation: Behavior is shaped by consequences.
(A) Classical conditioning involves stimulus pairing.
(C) Observational learning involves modeling.
(D) Insight learning involves sudden understanding.
Section: Cognitive-Affective Bases of Behavior

4. Short-term memory typically holds information for approximately:
A. 1–2 seconds
B. 5–10 seconds
C. 15–30 seconds
D. Several minutes

Answer: C. 15–30 seconds
Explanation: Short-term memory lasts about 20 seconds without rehearsal.
(A) Too brief.
(B) Too short.
(D) Too long.
Section: Cognitive-Affective Bases of Behavior

5. Groupthink is best described as:
A. Increased creativity in groups
B. Poor decision-making due to pressure for consensus
C. Increased conflict in groups
D. Independent thinking in groups

Answer: B. Poor decision-making due to pressure for consensus
Explanation: Groupthink suppresses dissent.
(A) Creativity is often reduced.
(C) Conflict is minimized, not increased.
(D) Independent thinking is discouraged.
Section: Social and Multicultural Bases of Behavior

6. Which concept explains helping behavior based on cost-benefit analysis?
A. Altruism
B. Social exchange theory
C. Reciprocity norm
D. Diffusion of responsibility

Answer: B. Social exchange theory
Explanation: Helping depends on perceived rewards vs costs.
(A) Altruism is selfless helping.
(C) Reciprocity involves returning favors.
(D) Diffusion reduces helping.
Section: Social and Multicultural Bases of Behavior

7. Object permanence develops during which stage?
A. Sensorimotor
B. Preoperational
C. Concrete operational
D. Formal operational

Answer: A. Sensorimotor
Explanation: Infants learn objects still exist when unseen.
(B) Preoperational lacks full logical thinking.
(C) Concrete involves logic.
(D) Formal involves abstract thought.
Section: Growth and Lifespan Development

8. Which attachment style is characterized by distress upon separation and difficulty being soothed?
A. Secure
B. Avoidant
C. Ambivalent
D. Disorganized

Answer: C. Ambivalent
Explanation: Ambivalent attachment shows anxiety and inconsistency.
(A) Secure children are easily soothed.
(B) Avoidant children show little distress.
(D) Disorganized shows confusion.
Section: Growth and Lifespan Development

9. Which assessment measure uses T-scores?
A. WAIS-IV
B. MMPI-2
C. Bender-Gestalt
D. Stroop test

Answer: B. MMPI-2
Explanation: MMPI uses T-scores for standardization.
(A) WAIS uses scaled scores.
(C) Bender is visual-motor.
(D) Stroop measures attention.
Section: Assessment and Diagnosis

10. A test that predicts future performance demonstrates:
A. Content validity
B. Construct validity
C. Predictive validity
D. Face validity

Answer: C. Predictive validity
Explanation: Predictive validity relates to future outcomes.
(A) Content validity covers test content.
(B) Construct validity measures theoretical constructs.
(D) Face validity is superficial.
Section: Assessment and Diagnosis

11. Which therapy focuses on reinforcement and punishment?
A. Cognitive therapy
B. Behavioral therapy
C. Humanistic therapy
D. Psychodynamic therapy

Answer: B. Behavioral therapy
Explanation: Behavioral therapy uses conditioning principles.
(A) Cognitive targets thoughts.
(C) Humanistic emphasizes growth.
(D) Psychodynamic focuses unconscious.
Section: Treatment, Intervention, Prevention

12. Systematic desensitization involves:
A. Immediate exposure to fear
B. Gradual exposure with relaxation
C. Punishment of fear
D. Avoidance of stimuli

Answer: B. Gradual exposure with relaxation
Explanation: Combines exposure with relaxation techniques.
(A) Immediate exposure is flooding.
(C) Punishment is not used.
(D) Avoidance worsens anxiety.
Section: Treatment, Intervention, Prevention

13. Which measure of central tendency is most affected by extreme scores?
A. Mean
B. Median
C. Mode
D. Range

Answer: A. Mean
Explanation: Mean is sensitive to outliers.
(B) Median is resistant.
(C) Mode is unaffected.
(D) Range is not a central tendency.
Section: Research Methods and Statistics

14. Standard deviation measures:
A. Central tendency
B. Variability
C. Correlation
D. Significance

Answer: B. Variability
Explanation: It reflects spread of data.
(A) Central tendency is mean/median/mode.
(C) Correlation measures relationships.
(D) Significance relates to hypothesis testing.
Section: Research Methods and Statistics

15. Which ethical principle emphasizes fairness in treatment?
A. Beneficence
B. Justice
C. Integrity
D. Fidelity

Answer: B. Justice
Explanation: Justice ensures equal access and fairness.
(A) Beneficence focuses on well-being.
(C) Integrity involves honesty.
(D) Fidelity involves trust.
Section: Ethical, Legal, and Professional Issues

16. Duty to warn applies when:
A. A client misses sessions
B. A client poses serious danger
C. A client refuses treatment
D. A client changes therapists

Answer: B. A client poses serious danger
Explanation: Duty to warn protects others from harm.
(A) Missing sessions is not a legal issue.
(C) Refusal is not grounds.
(D) Switching therapists is unrelated.
Section: Ethical, Legal, and Professional Issues

17. Which lobe processes auditory information?
A. Frontal
B. Parietal
C. Temporal
D. Occipital

Answer: C. Temporal
Explanation: Temporal lobe processes sound.
(A) Frontal = executive function.
(B) Parietal = sensory processing.
(D) Occipital = vision.
Section: Biological Bases of Behavior

18. Chunking improves memory by:
A. Increasing rehearsal
B. Grouping information
C. Reducing attention
D. Eliminating interference

Answer: B. Grouping information
Explanation: Chunking organizes data into units.
(A) Rehearsal is repetition.
(C) Attention is not reduced.
(D) Interference is not eliminated.
Section: Cognitive-Affective Bases of Behavior

19. Attribution theory focuses on:
A. Emotional regulation
B. Causes of behavior
C. Learning processes
D. Brain function

Answer: B. Causes of behavior
Explanation: Attribution explains why events occur.
(A) Emotion is separate.
(C) Learning is different domain.
(D) Brain function is biological.
Section: Social and Multicultural Bases of Behavior

20. Which stage involves abstract reasoning and hypothetical thinking?
A. Sensorimotor
B. Preoperational
C. Concrete operational
D. Formal operational

Answer: D. Formal operational
Explanation: This stage allows abstract thought.
(A) Sensorimotor is basic interaction.
(B) Preoperational lacks logic.
(C) Concrete is limited to real objects.
Section: Growth and Lifespan Development

April 10th, 2026

A client reports feeling detached from reality and describes the world as “dreamlike.” Which term best describes this experience?
A. Depersonalization
B. Derealization
C. Dissociation
D. Delusion

Answer: B. Derealization
Explanation: Derealization involves a sense that the external world is unreal or dreamlike. (A) Depersonalization refers to feeling detached from oneself, not the environment. (C) Dissociation is a broader term that includes both depersonalization and derealization. (D) Delusion is a fixed false belief, not a perceptual distortion.

In classical conditioning, the process of presenting the conditioned stimulus without the unconditioned stimulus results in:
A. Generalization
B. Extinction
C. Spontaneous recovery
D. Discrimination

Answer: B. Extinction
Explanation: Extinction occurs when the conditioned stimulus is repeatedly presented without reinforcement, weakening the learned response. (A) Generalization is responding to similar stimuli. (C) Spontaneous recovery is the reappearance of an extinguished response. (D) Discrimination is distinguishing between stimuli.

Which test is most appropriate for assessing executive functioning?
A. WAIS-IV
B. MMPI-2
C. Wisconsin Card Sorting Test
D. Rorschach Inkblot Test

Answer: C. Wisconsin Card Sorting Test
Explanation: The WCST assesses executive functioning such as cognitive flexibility and set shifting. (A) WAIS-IV measures general intelligence. (B) MMPI-2 assesses personality and psychopathology. (D) Rorschach is a projective test.

A therapist reinforces a client’s approximation toward a desired behavior. This is an example of:
A. Chaining
B. Shaping
C. Modeling
D. Flooding

Answer: B. Shaping
Explanation: Shaping involves reinforcing successive approximations of a target behavior. (A) Chaining links behaviors in sequence. (C) Modeling involves imitation. (D) Flooding is an exposure technique.

Which neurotransmitter is most closely associated with Parkinson’s disease?
A. Serotonin
B. Dopamine
C. GABA
D. Acetylcholine

Answer: B. Dopamine
Explanation: Parkinson’s disease involves degeneration of dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra. (A) Serotonin is linked to mood. (C) GABA is inhibitory. (D) Acetylcholine is involved in memory and movement.

A psychologist ensures participants are unaware of the study’s true purpose to reduce:
A. Selection bias
B. Demand characteristics
C. Experimenter bias
D. Attrition

Answer: B. Demand characteristics
Explanation: Demand characteristics occur when participants alter behavior based on perceived expectations. (A) Selection bias relates to sampling. (C) Experimenter bias involves researcher influence. (D) Attrition is participant dropout.

According to Piaget, abstract thinking develops during which stage?
A. Sensorimotor
B. Preoperational
C. Concrete operational
D. Formal operational

Answer: D. Formal operational
Explanation: Abstract reasoning emerges in the formal operational stage. (A) Sensorimotor involves basic interaction. (B) Preoperational includes symbolic thought but lacks logic. (C) Concrete operational involves logical thinking about concrete objects.

Which ethical principle requires psychologists to avoid harming clients?
A. Fidelity
B. Justice
C. Beneficence and nonmaleficence
D. Integrity

Answer: C. Beneficence and nonmaleficence
Explanation: This principle emphasizes maximizing benefits and minimizing harm. (A) Fidelity involves trust. (B) Justice refers to fairness. (D) Integrity involves honesty.

A test has high internal consistency if it:
A. Produces similar results over time
B. Measures what it intends to measure
C. Has items that correlate with each other
D. Predicts future outcomes

Answer: C. Has items that correlate with each other
Explanation: Internal consistency reflects how well items measure the same construct. (A) Refers to test-retest reliability. (B) Refers to validity. (D) Refers to predictive validity.

In group therapy, when conflict and challenges arise, the group is in which stage?
A. Forming
B. Storming
C. Norming
D. Performing

Answer: B. Storming
Explanation: The storming stage involves conflict and power struggles. (A) Forming is orientation. (C) Norming involves cohesion. (D) Performing reflects effective functioning.

April 8, 2026

A psychologist is assessing a client who reports persistent intrusive thoughts about contamination, accompanied by repetitive handwashing rituals. The client recognizes the thoughts as irrational but feels unable to resist them. Which diagnosis is most appropriate?
A. Generalized anxiety disorder
B. Obsessive-compulsive disorder
C. Illness anxiety disorder
D. Delusional disorder

Answer: B
Explanation: The presence of intrusive, unwanted thoughts (obsessions) and repetitive behaviors (compulsions) with preserved insight is characteristic of obsessive-compulsive disorder. Generalized anxiety disorder involves excessive worry without compulsions. Illness anxiety disorder focuses on health concerns without ritualistic behavior. Delusional disorder involves fixed false beliefs without insight.

In classical conditioning, what is the term for the gradual weakening of a conditioned response when the conditioned stimulus is repeatedly presented without the unconditioned stimulus?
A. Spontaneous recovery
B. Generalization
C. Extinction
D. Discrimination

Answer: C
Explanation: Extinction occurs when the conditioned stimulus is no longer paired with the unconditioned stimulus, leading to a decrease in the conditioned response. Spontaneous recovery refers to the return of the response after extinction. Generalization involves responding to similar stimuli. Discrimination is distinguishing between stimuli.

A researcher wants to examine the relationship between stress levels and sleep quality in adults. Which statistical method is most appropriate?
A. Chi-square test
B. Correlation coefficient
C. ANOVA
D. Factor analysis

Answer: B
Explanation: A correlation coefficient measures the strength and direction of the relationship between two continuous variables. Chi-square is used for categorical data. ANOVA compares means across groups. Factor analysis identifies underlying constructs.

A client presents with a history of unstable relationships, impulsivity, and intense fear of abandonment. Which personality disorder is most consistent with this presentation?
A. Narcissistic personality disorder
B. Borderline personality disorder
C. Avoidant personality disorder
D. Dependent personality disorder

Answer: B
Explanation: Borderline personality disorder is characterized by instability in relationships, self-image, and emotions, along with impulsivity and fear of abandonment. Narcissistic personality disorder involves grandiosity. Avoidant personality disorder involves social inhibition. Dependent personality disorder involves excessive need for care.

Which neurotransmitter is most closely associated with reward and reinforcement pathways in the brain?
A. Serotonin
B. Dopamine
C. GABA
D. Acetylcholine

Answer: B
Explanation: Dopamine plays a central role in the brain’s reward system and reinforcement learning. Serotonin is involved in mood regulation. GABA is inhibitory. Acetylcholine is involved in memory and muscle activation.

A psychologist uses a test that yields consistent results across repeated administrations. This characteristic refers to:
A. Validity
B. Reliability
C. Standardization
D. Norming

Answer: B
Explanation: Reliability refers to consistency of measurement. Validity refers to whether the test measures what it intends to measure. Standardization involves uniform procedures. Norming refers to establishing comparison groups.

In Piaget’s theory, during which stage do children begin to think logically about concrete events but struggle with abstract concepts?
A. Sensorimotor stage
B. Preoperational stage
C. Concrete operational stage
D. Formal operational stage

Answer: C
Explanation: In the concrete operational stage, children develop logical thinking about concrete situations but have difficulty with abstract reasoning, which develops in the formal operational stage.

A therapist maintains strict boundaries and avoids dual relationships with clients. This is primarily an issue of:
A. Competence
B. Confidentiality
C. Ethics
D. Assessment

Answer: C
Explanation: Maintaining boundaries and avoiding dual relationships are core ethical principles in psychological practice. Competence refers to skill level. Confidentiality involves privacy. Assessment involves evaluation methods.

Which schedule of reinforcement produces the highest rate of responding and is most resistant to extinction?
A. Fixed ratio
B. Variable ratio
C. Fixed interval
D. Variable interval

Answer: B
Explanation: Variable ratio schedules produce high, steady response rates and are highly resistant to extinction, as reinforcement is unpredictable.

A client is unable to recall important personal information following a traumatic event, without evidence of neurological damage. This is most consistent with:
A. Dissociative amnesia
B. Conversion disorder
C. Somatic symptom disorder
D. Acute stress disorder

Answer: A
Explanation: Dissociative amnesia involves inability to recall autobiographical information, typically following trauma. Conversion disorder involves neurological symptoms without medical cause. Somatic symptom disorder involves excessive concern about physical symptoms. Acute stress disorder includes broader trauma-related symptoms.

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