1. A reinforcer that naturally satisfies a need (like food or water) is a:
A. Secondary reinforcer
B. Neutral stimulus
C. Primary reinforcer
D. Conditioned reinforcer
Answer: C — Primary reinforcer
Explanation: Primary reinforcers are biologically hard-wired (food, warmth, water).
2. The part of the neuron that receives information is the:
A. Axon
B. Soma
C. Dendrite
D. Myelin sheath
Answer: C — Dendrite
Explanation: Dendrites receive signals; axons send them.
3. The most common measure of central tendency is the:
A. Mean
B. Median
C. Mode
D. Range
Answer: A — Mean
Explanation: The mean is used most often unless outliers distort it.
4. Piaget’s stage where object permanence develops is:
A. Sensorimotor
B. Preoperational
C. Concrete operational
D. Formal operational
Answer: A — Sensorimotor
Explanation: Babies learn objects still exist even when unseen.
5. Classical conditioning is most associated with:
A. Skinner
B. Watson
C. Bandura
D. Freud
Answer: B — Watson
Explanation: Watson used Pavlov’s conditioning principles in humans (e.g., Little Albert).
6. The sympathetic nervous system controls:
A. Rest and digestion
B. Fight-or-flight
C. Long-term memory
D. Sleep cycles
Answer: B — Fight-or-flight
Explanation: This system prepares the body for action and stress.
7. A test that measures what it is supposed to measure has high:
A. Reliability
B. Validity
C. Standardization
D. Power
Answer: B — Validity
Explanation: Valid = accurate (measures the right thing).
8. The brain’s memory-forming center is the:
A. Thalamus
B. Hippocampus
C. Medulla
D. Amygdala
Answer: B — Hippocampus
Explanation: Crucial for forming new declarative memories.
9. Behavior that increases because something unpleasant is removed is:
A. Positive reinforcement
B. Negative reinforcement
C. Punishment
D. Extinction
Answer: B — Negative reinforcement
Explanation: Removing a negative stimulus strengthens a behavior.
10. A chronic, low-level depressed mood for 2+ years is:
A. Cyclothymia
B. Persistent Depressive Disorder
C. Major Depression
D. Bipolar II
Answer: B — Persistent Depressive Disorder
Explanation: Long-lasting mild depression = dysthymia.
11. The brain structure responsible for balance is the:
A. Cerebellum
B. Amygdala
C. Frontal lobe
D. Occipital lobe
Answer: A — Cerebellum
Explanation: Coordinates balance, posture, and fine motor movements.
12. The average IQ score (mean) is:
A. 80
B. 90
C. 100
D. 120
Answer: C — 100
Explanation: Standard IQ tests have mean 100, SD 15.
13. Social learning theory emphasizes:
A. Reflexes
B. Observing others
C. Free association
D. Punishment
Answer: B — Observing others
Explanation: Bandura showed we learn by watching models.
14. The DSM-5 uses a:
A. Multiaxial system
B. Two-axis system
C. Dimensional + categorical structure
D. Personality-only system
Answer: C — Dimensional + categorical
Explanation: DSM-5 removed the 5-axis system and added severity/dimension ratings.
15. A conditioned response disappears through:
A. Habituation
B. Extinction
C. Sensitization
D. Rehearsal
Answer: B — Extinction
Explanation: When CS is repeatedly presented without the US.
16. The neurotransmitter most associated with pleasure and reward is:
A. GABA
B. Dopamine
C. Serotonin
D. Acetylcholine
Answer: B — Dopamine
Explanation: Key in reward pathways and addiction.
17. The most basic ethical principle in research is:
A. Debriefing
B. Competence
C. Informed consent
D. Dual relationships
Answer: C — Informed consent
Explanation: Participants must know what they are agreeing to.
18. The brain’s emotion center is the:
A. Cerebellum
B. Amygdala
C. Parietal lobe
D. Reticular formation
Answer: B — Amygdala
Explanation: Processes fear, anger, and emotional memory.
19. Reinforcing successive approximations is called:
A. Chaining
B. Shaping
C. Modeling
D. Generalization
Answer: B — Shaping
Explanation: Reward each step toward the desired behavior.
20. The most powerful research design for causation is:
A. Case study
B. Survey
C. Experiment
D. Correlation
Answer: C — Experiment
Explanation: Only experiments manipulate variables.
21. The stage when teens develop identity is:
A. Initiative vs guilt
B. Identity vs role confusion
C. Industry vs inferiority
D. Generativity vs stagnation
Answer: B — Identity vs role confusion
Explanation: Erikson: adolescence = identity formation.
22. The type of memory used to recall facts is:
A. Procedural
B. Semantic
C. Episodic
D. Sensory
Answer: B — Semantic
Explanation: Semantic = facts & general knowledge.
23. Sleep stage with vivid dreaming is:
A. N1
B. N2
C. N3
D. REM
Answer: D — REM
Explanation: REM sleep = dreaming + muscle paralysis.
24. A phobia is best treated with:
A. Free association
B. Exposure therapy
C. Medication only
D. Hypnosis
Answer: B — Exposure therapy
Explanation: Most effective CBT treatment for phobias.
25. A behavior that no longer receives reinforcement will:
A. Increase
B. Stay the same
C. Become automatic
D. Decrease
Answer: D — Decrease
Explanation: Removal of reinforcement = extinction.
26. Broca’s area is responsible for:
A. Speech production
B. Motor coordination
C. Emotion regulation
D. Visual processing
Answer: A — Speech production
Explanation: Damage causes expressive aphasia.
27. The variable the researcher manipulates is the:
A. Dependent variable
B. Independent variable
C. Confounding variable
D. Control variable
Answer: B — Independent variable
Explanation: It is “independent” of participants’ behavior.
28. The law stating behavior repeats when rewarded is:
A. Law of Effect
B. Law of Readiness
C. Yerkes–Dodson law
D. Gestalt law
Answer: A — Law of Effect
Explanation: Thorndike: reward strengthens behavior.
29. The neurotransmitter reduced in depression is often:
A. Serotonin
B. Glutamate
C. Acetylcholine
D. Endorphins
Answer: A — Serotonin
Explanation: SSRIs target serotonin levels.
30. The WAIS measures:
A. Personality
B. Intelligence
C. Interests
D. Achievement
Answer: B — Intelligence
Explanation: WAIS = most widely used adult IQ test.
31. A panic attack peaks within:
A. 1 minute
B. 5 minutes
C. 10 minutes
D. 30 minutes
Answer: C — 10 minutes
Explanation: Most peak rapidly within 10 minutes.
32. A therapist’s awareness of their own biases is called:
A. Parallel process
B. Cultural competence
C. Countertransference
D. Object relations
Answer: B — Cultural competence
Explanation: Being aware + adapting to clients’ cultural backgrounds.
33. A ratio schedule based on an unpredictable number of responses is:
A. Fixed ratio
B. Fixed interval
C. Variable ratio
D. Variable interval
Answer: C — Variable ratio
Explanation: Produces high, steady responding (e.g., slot machines).
34. The ability to understand another person’s feelings is:
A. Projection
B. Empathy
C. Sympathy
D. Identification
Answer: B — Empathy
Explanation: Empathy = understanding another’s emotional state.
35. The minimum intensity needed to detect a stimulus is the:
A. Relative threshold
B. Absolute threshold
C. Difference threshold
D. Weber’s ratio
Answer: B — Absolute threshold
Explanation: Lowest detectable level 50% of the time.
36. The id operates on the:
A. Reality principle
B. Pleasure principle
C. Morality principle
D. Adaptation principle
Answer: B — Pleasure principle
Explanation: Freud: id seeks immediate satisfaction.
37. A non-directive therapy developed by Rogers is:
A. Gestalt
B. REBT
C. Person-centered therapy
D. DBT
Answer: C — Person-centered therapy
Explanation: Emphasizes unconditional positive regard.
38. The best measure of variability is the:
A. Range
B. Standard deviation
C. Mode
D. Mean
Answer: B — Standard deviation
Explanation: SD captures spread of scores around mean.
39. The first step in problem-solving is:
A. Evaluate solutions
B. Generate options
C. Define the problem
D. Implement solutions
Answer: C — Define the problem
Explanation: Must identify the issue before solving it.
40. A sudden, temporary episode of memory loss is:
A. Dissociative identity disorder
B. Dissociative amnesia
C. Fugue
D. Anterograde amnesia
Answer: B — Dissociative amnesia
Explanation: Inability to recall personal information.
41. The belief that your thoughts cause external events is:
A. Magical thinking
B. Catastrophizing
C. Personalization
D. Overgeneralization
Answer: A — Magical thinking
Explanation: Common in OCD and young children.
42. A correlation of –.80 means:
A. Weak
B. Moderate
C. Strong
D. No relationship
Answer: C — Strong
Explanation: Closer to ±1 = stronger.
43. According to Maslow, the highest level is:
A. Esteem
B. Safety
C. Love
D. Self-actualization
Answer: D — Self-actualization
Explanation: Achieving full potential.
44. The ability to delay gratification is part of:
A. Emotional intelligence
B. Fluid intelligence
C. Crystallized intelligence
D. Psychomotor speed
Answer: A — Emotional intelligence
Explanation: EI includes impulse control.
45. A personality test with ambiguous pictures is a:
A. Objective test
B. Projective test
C. Achievement test
D. Aptitude test
Answer: B — Projective test
Explanation: Examples: Rorschach, TAT.
46. The defense mechanism where someone acts opposite of their true feelings is:
A. Projection
B. Reaction formation
C. Sublimation
D. Regression
Answer: B — Reaction formation
Explanation: Express the opposite impulse.
47. The most basic form of learning is:
A. Classical conditioning
B. Operant conditioning
C. Habituation
D. Modeling
Answer: C — Habituation
Explanation: Reduced response to repeated stimuli.
48. The stage of memory where information is briefly held is:
A. Short-term memory
B. Sensory memory
C. Long-term memory
D. Procedural memory
Answer: B — Sensory memory
Explanation: Holds info for milliseconds to seconds.
49. A psychologist must break confidentiality when:
A. A client is angry
B. A client refuses treatment
C. There is risk of harm to self or others
D. Insurance asks for notes
Answer: C — Risk of harm
Explanation: Duty to protect supersedes confidentiality.
50. A study that tests the same people over many years is:
A. Cross-sectional
B. Case-control
C. Longitudinal
D. Experimental
Answer: C — Longitudinal
Explanation: Follows the same participants over time.
Simon R. Downes 